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I have only seen this being done for football players that have running contracts that will expire in a year's or two year's time and want to make it easy for the next football club to sign them afterwards, but I have never seen it in other industries so I don't know if it's common. My question is: is it common or wise to sign a pre-contractual agreement with a potential future employer so that one agrees to sign a contract in a year's time, after the current contract with the current company expires? If so, what are usually the clauses of such pre-contracts in the UK?

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A country to which this will apply is a must. I have not heard of this in the US. Lawyers may correct me but signing a contract to agree to a contract seems a bit redundant. – Karlson Apr 10 '12 at 14:22
This would be in the UK. – 6152142613526 Apr 10 '12 at 16:06

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Under the laws of England and Wales, pre-contract agreements are usually marked as ’subject to contract’ or worded similarly. Such an agreement is usually held to be no more than a mere “agreement to agree” something further in the future. As such, the agreement usually has no binding effect under normal established contractual principles. (taken from the article you linked to)

The clause has no binding effect.

I would say its not very wise to use it. It complicates a contract and thus increases the risk of misunderstandings or loop holes for no benefit. As far as I know its not common. I have never heard of it before.

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Reliance upon a pre-contractual agreement would be wrong in your circumstances. You must enter into proper contract with your existing and future employer.The same is legally possible in UK and elsewhere. Consult a good lawyer/law firm of your choice.

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