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Provided I raise a first investment from angel on X valuation, then raise another one from same angel on X+Y valuation, what would be the total amount of percentage the angel will have of the company?

I mean, it's clear his/her first investment percentage will become lower, but how these two percentage are summed?

I guess it's pretty trivial to calculate, but for some I reason I have a mind block at this time of the night.

Thanks!

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Don't quite understand why the question was down-voted - if this a stupid question (which it very might be), just throw a link/calculator to me, and I will delete it. – SyBer Aug 24 '11 at 22:01
To better rephrase it, it seems mathematically correct to just add the 1st share (diluted following 2nd investment) and the 2nd share, but in this case the resulting invested sum exactly equals what the angel has invested. Shouldn't the 1st sum be higher due increased company valuation, thus creating a higher total then what the angel invested? – SyBer Aug 24 '11 at 22:08

1 Answer

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You don't sell the angel percentages, you sell the angel shares.

A higher valuation implies a higher share price.

For instance, if you

  1. sold the angel 1000 shares at $20 each for $20,000, then
  2. sold the angel 500 shares at $50 each for $25,000

the angel now has 1500 shares.

At any given time the percentage of the company that the investor owns is equal to the number of shares they have divided by the number of shares outstanding.

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