Tell me more ×
Answers OnStartups is a question and answer site for entrepreneurs looking to start or run a new business. It's 100% free, no registration required.

Always, wondered this, and never found a good answer. Guess the opposite applies, too -- how do you know someone does NOT have the right to enter a legal agreement on behalf of a company?

Please cite sources: US Federal Law and/or Case Law

Thanks!

share|improve this question

1 Answer

up vote 2 down vote accepted

You don't know, though sometimes you can do research to gain comfort.

In practical terms, one relies on:

  • The signing individual's representation that s/he has authority to bind the company. If that representation proves to be false, you can go after him / her personally.
  • The fact that, under certain circumstances, an individual with apparent authority can bind a company, even if s/he did not have actual authority. Please see "Who Can Sign a Contract for a Corporation?"

Disclaimer: This post does not constitute legal advice and does not establish an attorney-client relationship.

share|improve this answer
@Dana Shultz: Thanks, that's the same answer I've come to in the past, but nice to know it still holds true. Cheers! – blunders Oct 22 '10 at 22:02

Your Answer

 
discard

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.